Statements KJV Onlyers Make Which Are Simply False And A Response
#1: The original
KJV in 1611 AD when it first came out had no marginal notes.
This is simply
blind faith gone to seed! A statement based on wishful thinking without any
proof and contrary to all known facts! The very first KJV had marginal notes.
TAKE A SECOND LOOK AT THEM!!!
#2: These marginal
notes were added by the publishers and did not originate with the inspired translators.
As if the publishers
would have the knowledge to make such judgements of alternate manuscripts. As
if the Translators would have silently allowed the publisher to confuse the
readers after the Holy Spirit had told them which reading was authentic. The
translators made clear reference to the need of the marginal notes in the original
preface. (See original 1611KJV Preface at the end of this group of articles.)
#3: The original
translators preface was not written by or authorized by the translators but
was inserted against their wishes by the publishers.
As ridiculous as
it is unfounded and without proof! The last gasp of a dying false doctrine!
#4: The fact is,
the marginal readings are NOT THE WORDS OF GOD and the TEXT IS. The translators
did not KNOW that they were being guided to translate His word correctly, that
much is certain. Just because they wrote in the margins doesn't mean the text
is not accurate!
Incredible!!! Imagine
this. The KJV translators specifically dispel any notion that they were specially
guided by God in the preface, but didn’t know that what they wrote in the preface
was wrong. God was inspiring their choices of manuscripts!
Unanswerable question: "If the translators
died not knowing they were inspired, HOW DID YOU FIND THIS OUT"???
Questions for "KJV only" advocates:
1.
Which KJV is inspired, since it was revised four times, the last
being in 1769.
2.
What Bible would these KJV worshippers recommend since before 1611
there was no Bible.
3.
Do they realize that the apostle Paul did not use the KJV.
4.
Why do KJV only advocates reject the apocrypha, since the original
1611 version contained the apocrypha?
5.
If God always gives the world his word in one language (as KJV advocates
say of English), then the KJV is certainly not that language, for God chose
Koine GREEK not ENGLISH to reveal his New Covenant!
6.
If God gave us the KJV as an inspired translation, why would God
not repeat the process again in modern language in each language?
7.
If God supervised the translation process so that the KJV is 100%
error free, why did God not extend this supervision to the printers?
8.
Why did the KJV translators use marginal note showing alternate translation
possibilities? If the English of the KJV is inspired of God, there would be
no alternates!
9.
If the KJV translators were inspired of God in their work, why did
they not know it?
10.
Why were all the marginal notes and alternate readings removed from
modern editions of the KJV, along with the Apocrypha, the opening Dedication
to James I, and a lengthy introduction from "The Translators to the Reader."?
11.
When there is a difference between the KJV English and the TR Greek,
why do you believe that the Greek was wrong and the KJV English is correct?
12.
If the KJV-only supporters believe fully in the word-for-word inspiration
of the KJV, why would italics be necessary?
13.
In defending the KJV's use of archaic language, do you really think
it is a good thing that a person must use an old English dictionary just to
understand the Bible in casual reading?
14.
Why do KJV only advocates feel that all modern translations are wrong
for copyrighting the work of each translation when they copyright the materials
on their websites, tracts and books they use to promote the KJV? Do they not
realize that after 100 years all books pass into public domain and that all
copyrighted Bibles today will soon be public domain just like the KJV? If "God's
truth should not be copyrighted" then why do they copy write their defenses
of God's ultimate truth, the Bible?
15.
Is it not ridiculous to suggest that when the TR disagrees with the
KJV that Greek TR has errors, but the KJV doesn't? Is this not the ultimate
example of "translation worship"? (Reject the original in favour of
the translation)
16.
Did you know that the Textus Receptus, from which the KJV was translated,
was based on half a dozen small manuscripts, none earlier than the 10th century?
17.
If the Textus Receptus is the error free text, then why are the last
6 verses of Revelation absence from the TR, yet present in the KJV? Did you
know that for these verses, the Latin Vulgate was translated into English -
a translation of a translation?
18.
Why do KJV only advocates believe that the English of the KJV is
clearer and more precise than the original Greek language manuscripts? Why should
Bible students throw out their Greek dictionaries and buy an "archaic English"
dictionary? Are there not word pictures in the original Greek words that the
English cannot easily convey? (Jas 2:19 "tremble"; Greek: PHRISSO,
indicates to be rough, to bristle. is a powerful word picture of how the demons
are in such terror that their skin is rough with goose pimples. Also differences
between "agape" and "phileo" love words.)
19.
Why did the translators make mistakes in the chapter summaries in
the 1611 version? Wouldn't God have inspired this as well? Why would God inspire
the English providentially accurate, but then allow misleading chapter headings?
(Every chapter of the Song of Songs is interpreted as descriptive of the church.
This is wrong. SoS is God's "mate selection manual." Also, Isa 22
"He prophesieth Shebna's deprivation, and Eliakim, prefiguring the kingdom
of Christ, his substitution" This is wrong and reflect the incorrect theology
of the day.)
20.
Why would the translators use book headings like "The Gospel
According to Saint Luke" since the Greek merely says "The Gospel According
to Luke". Does not this show that the translators were influenced by their
contemporary theology and the Catholic false doctrine of "sainthood"?
21.
Do KJV only advocates realize that they stand beside the Mormon church
in that both groups believe that they were delivered an "inspired translation"?
(Mormon's believe Joseph Smith's English translation of the Book of Mormon from
the Nephi Plates was done under inspiration.) Do KJV only advocates realize
that the most powerful and irrefutable evidence that neither were translated
under inspiration, is the very first edition with all their thousands of errors?
(KJV- 1611 edition; BoM- 1831 edition)
22.
Do KJV only advocates realize that, to point out that all modern
translations have the same kinds of mistakes we are accusing of the KJV, is
irrelevant, because we maintain that all translations have errors and none were
translated under the inspired supervision of God?
23.
Why would the Holy Spirit mis-guide the translators to employ the
use of mythical creatures like "unicorn" for wild ox, "satyr"
for "wild goat", "cockatrice" for common viper, when today
we know what the real name of these creatures is?
24.
If the KJV is error free in the English, then why did they fail to
correctly distinguish between "Devil and Demons" (Mt 4:1-DIABOLOS
and Jn 13:2-DAIMONIZOMAI) ; "hades and hell" (see Lk 16:23-HADES and
Mt 5:22-GEENNA)
25.
Why would KJV translators render Gen 15:6 which is quoted in identical
Greek form by Paul in Rom 4:3, 9, 22; Gal 3:6, in FOUR DIFFERENT WAYS? Why are
they creating distinctions where none exist?
26.
Why did the KJV translators have no consistent rule for differentiating
between the use of definite and indefinite articles? (Dan 3:25 we have one "like
the Son of God" instead of "like a son of God", even though in
28 Nebuchadnezzar states God sent "His angel" to deliver the men.
The definite article was also added to the centurion's confession in Mt 27:54.)
27.
How can you accept that the Textus Receptus is perfect and error
free when Acts 9:6 is found only in the Latin Vulgate but absolutely no Greek
manuscript known to man? Further, how come in Rev 22:19 the phrase "book
of life" is used in the KJV when absolutely ALL known Greek manuscripts
read "tree of life"?
28.
How can we trust the TR to be 100% error free when the second half
of 1 Jn 5:8 are found only in the Latin Vulgate and a Greek manuscript probably
written in Oxford about 1520 by a Franciscan friar named Froy (or Roy), who
took the disputed words from the Latin Vulgate? (we are not disputing the doctrine
of the trinity, just the validity of the last half of this verse)
29.
How do you explain the grammatical error in the original 1611 KJV
in Isa 6:2 where the translators made a rare grammatical error by using the
incorrect plural form of "seraphims" rather than "seraphim"?
30.
Must we possess a perfectly flawless bible translation in order to
call it "the word of God"? If so, how do we know "it"
is perfect? If not, why do some "limit" "the word
of God" to only ONE "17th Century English" translation? Where
was "the word of God" prior to 1611? Did our Pilgrim Fathers
have "the word of God" when they brought the GENEVA BIBLE translation
with them to North America?
31.
Were the KJV translators "liars" for saying that "the
very meanest [poorest] translation" is still "the word of God"?
32.
Do you believe that the Hebrew and Greek used for the KJV are "the
word of God"?
33.
Do you believe that the Hebrew and Greek underlying the KJV can "correct"
the English?
34.
Do you believe that the English of the KJV "corrects" its
own Hebrew and Greek texts from which it was translated?
35.
Is ANY translation "inspired"? Is the KJV an "inspired
translation"?
36.
Is the KJV "scripture" ? Is IT "given by inspiration
of God"? [2 Tim. 3:16]
37.
WHEN was the KJV "given by inspiration of God" — 1611,
or any of the KJV major/minor revisions in 1613, 1629, 1638, 1644, 1664, 1701,
1744, 1762, 1769, and the last one in 1850?
38.
In what language did Jesus Christ [not Peter Ruckman and others]
teach that the Old Testament would be preserved forever according to Matthew
5:18?
39.
Where does the Bible teach that God will perfectly preserve His Word
in the form of one seventeenth-century English translation?
40.
Did God lose the words of the originals when the "autographs"
were destroyed?
41.
Did the KJV translators mislead their readers by saying that their
New Testament was "translated out of the original Greek"? [title page
of KJV N.T.] Were they "liars" for claiming to have "the
original Greek" to translate from?
42.
Was "the original Greek" lost after 1611?
43.
Did the great Protestant Reformation (1517-1603) take place without
"the word of God"?
44.
What copy or translations of "the word of God," used by
the Reformers, was absolutely infallible and inerrant? [their main
Bibles are well-known and copies still exist].
45.
If the KJV is "God's infallible and preserved word to the English-speaking
people," did the "English-speaking people" have "the
word of God" from 1525-1604?
46.
Was Tyndale's [1525], or Coverdale's [1535], or Matthew's [1537],
or the Great [1539], or the Geneva [1560] . . . English Bible absolutely infallible?
47.
If neither the KJV nor any other one version were absolutely inerrant,
could a lost sinner still be "born again" by the "incorruptible
word of God"? [1 Peter 1:23]
48.
If the KJV can "correct" the inspired originals, did the
Hebrew and Greek originally "breathed out by God" need correction
or improvement?
49.
Since most "KJV-Onlyites" believe the KJV is the inerrant
and inspired "scripture" [2 Peter 1:20], and 2 Peter 1:21 says that
"the prophecy came not in old time by the will of man: but holy men
of God spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost," would you not therefore
reason thus — "For the King James Version came not in 1611 by the
will of man: but holy men of God translated as they were moved by the
Holy Ghost"?
50.
Which reading is the verbally (word-for-word) inerrant scripture
— "whom ye" [Cambridge KJV's] or, "whom he" [Oxford
KJV's] at Jeremiah 34:16?
51.
Which reading is the verbally (word-for-word) inerrant scripture
— "sin" [Cambridge KJV's] or "sins" [Oxford KJV's]
at 2 Chronicles 33:19?
52.
Who publishes the "inerrant KJV"?
53.
Since the revisions of the KJV from 1613-1850 made (in addition to
changes in punctuation, capitalization, and spelling) many hundreds of changes
in words, word order, possessives, singulars for plurals, articles, pronouns,
conjunctions, prepositions, entire phrases, and the addition and deletion of
words — would you say the KJV was "verbally inerrant" in 1611, 1629,
1638, 1644, 1664, 1701, 1744, 1762, 1769, or 1850?
54.
Would you contend that God waited until a king named "James"
sat on the throne of England before perfectly preserving His Word in English,
and would you think well of an "Epistle Dedicatory" that praises this
king as "most dread Sovereign . . .Your Majesty's Royal Person . . ."
— IF the historical FACT was revealed to you that King James was a practicing
homosexual all of his life? [documentation — Antonia Fraser -- "King
James VI of Scotland, I of England" Knopf Publ./1975/pgs. 36-37, 123 ||
Caroline Bingham -- "The Making of a King" Doubleday Publ./1969/pgs.
128-129, 197-198 || Otto J. Scott -- "James I" Mason-Charter Publ./1976/pgs.
108, 111, 120, 194, 200, 224, 311, 353, 382 || David H. Wilson -- "King
James VI & I" Oxford Publ./1956/pgs. 36, 99-101, 336-337, 383-386,
395 || plus several encyclopedias]
55.
Would you contend that the KJV translator, Richard Thomson, who worked
on Genesis-Kings in the Westminster group, was "led by God in translating"
even though he was an alcoholic that "drank his fill daily" throughout
the work? [Gustavus S. Paine -- "The Men Behind the KJV" Baker
Book House/1979/pgs. 40, 69]
56.
Is it possible that the rendition "gay clothing," in the
KJV at James 2: 3, could give the wrong impression to the modern-English KJV
reader?
57.
Did dead people "wake up" in the morning according to Isaiah
37:36 in the KJV?
58.
Was "Baptist" John's last name according to Matthew 14:
8 and Luke 7:20 in the KJV?
59.
Is 2 Corinthians 6:11-13 in the KJV understood or make any sense
to the modern-English KJV reader? — "O ye Corinthians, our mouth is open
unto you, our heart is enlarged. Ye are not straitened in us, but ye are
straitened in your own bowels. Now for a recompense in the same, (I speak
as unto my children,) be ye also enlarged." As clearly understood
from the New International Version [NIV] — "We have spoken freely to you,
Corinthians, and opened wide our hearts to you. We are not withholding
our affection from you, but you are withholding yours from us. As a fair
exchange — I speak as to my children — open wide your hearts also."
60.
Does the singular "oath's," occurring in every KJV at Matthew
14: 9 and Mark 6:26, "correct" every Textus Receptus Greek which has
the plural ("oaths") by the post-1611 publishers, misplacing the apostrophe?
61.
Did Jesus teach a way for men to be "worshiped" according
to Luke 14:10 in the KJV, contradicting the first commandment and what He said
in Luke 4: 8? [Remember — you may not go the Greek for any "light"
if you are a KJV-Onlyite!]
62.
Is the Holy Spirit an "it" according to John 1:32; Romans
8:16, 26; and 1 Peter 1:11 in the KJV? [Again — you may not go the
Greek for any "light" if you are a KJV-Onlyite!]
63.
Does Luke 23:56 support a "Friday" crucifixion in the KJV?
[No "day" here in Greek]
64.
Did Jesus command for a girl to be given "meat" to eat
according to Luke 8:55 in the KJV? [or, "of them that sit at meat with
thee." at Luke 14:10]
65.
Was Charles Haddon Spurgeon a "Bible-corrector" for saying
that Romans 8:24 should be rendered "saved in hope," instead of the
KJV's "saved by hope"? [Metropolitan Tabernacle Pulpit, Vol
27, 1881, page 485 — see more Spurgeon KJV comments in What is "KJV-Onlyism?",
his & many others' views in the article, "Quotes on Bible Translations."]
66.
Was J. Frank Norris a "Bible-corrector" for saying that
the correct rendering of John 3:5 should be "born of water and the Spirit,"
and for saying that "repent and turn" in Acts 26:20 should be "repent,
even turn"? [Norris-Wallace Debate, 1934, pgs. 108, 116] Also, is
Norman Pickering an "Alexandrian Apostate" for stating, "The
nature of language does not permit a 'perfect' translation — the semantic area
of words differs between languages so that there is seldom complete overlap.
A 'perfect' translation of John 3:16 from Greek into English is impossible,
for we have no perfect equivalent for "agapao" [translated "loved"
in John. 3:16]."?
67.
Was R. A. Torrey "lying" when he said the following in
1907 — "No one, so far as I know, holds that the English translation of
the Bible is absolutely infallible and inerrant. The doctrine held by
many is that the Scriptures as originally given were absolutely infallible and
inerrant, and that our English translation is a substantially accurate rendering
of the Scriptures as originally given"? [Difficulties in the Bible,
page 17]
68.
Is Don Edwards correct in agreeing "in favor of canonizing our
KJV," thus replacing the inspired canon in Hebrew and Greek? [The
Flaming Torch, June 1989, page 6]
69.
Did God supernaturally "move His Word from the original languages
to English" in 1611 as affirmed by The Flaming Torch? [same page
above]